What is the name of the degree to which the sub-components of a skill are interdependent?

1. This refers to a degree which subcomponents of a skill are interdependent. That is how much does performance of each part depend on the component that precedes it.

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2. The higher the interdependency the higher the organization of the skill. Breaking it down into Parts would not be effective because it will disrupt the natural rhythm.

1. To ensure that you have the learners’ attention before introducing a new skill you should:a) arrange the learners in an area free of background distractions.b) arrange learners so that their backs are to the sun.c) ensure that all learners can see and hear you.d) all of the above.

2. In order to ensure that the learner understands the instructions given, the practitioner should:a) be as detailed as possible.b) use developmentally appropriate terminology.c) incorporate only technical terminology used in the sport.d) change the cue words used throughout the explanation.

Use developmentally appropriate terminology

3. Initial instructions that are highly detailed:a) capture a learner’s interest.b) motivate a learner to try the skill.c) challenge the learner’s attentional capacity.d) are necessary for the learner to develop an idea of how to perform the sk

Challenge the learner's attentional capacity

4. An internal focus of attention directs a learner to:a) concentrate on a specific body movement.b) focus on the effects of his or her actions on the environment.c) change attentional focus according to his/her level of arousal.d) selectively attend to specific environmental information or focus one’s visual attention on a specific object.

Concentrate on a specific body movement

5. Providing learners with a frame of reference:a) allows them to compare the correctness of their actions.b) is the same thing as providing them with a learning mode.c) should only be used with learners who are in the autonomous stage .d) should only be done during a retention test.

Allows them to compare the correctness of their actions

6. Telling learners that they should feel their weight on their hands not in their armpits when using crutches is an example of providing:a) a demonstration.b) verbal rehearsal.c) a frame of reference.d) a check for understanding

7. Verbal cues should be:a) concise.b) used repeatedly.c) accurate.d) all of the above.e) A and C only

8. Which of the following is NOT true of verbal cues?a) They should be concise.b) They are used prompt a movement or movement sequence.c) They should be used repeatedly.d) They are the same thing as key elements.

They are the same thing as key elements

9. A learning model emphasizes:a) movement imitation.b) movement exploration.c) movement replication.d) movement time.

10. A learning model characteristically:a) has a high level of skill proficiency.b) performs the skill correctly.c) results in the active engagement of the observer.d) all of the above.

results in the active engagement of the observer

11. The initial demonstration should be:a) performed in real time.b) performed at a slower speed.c) broken into parts.d) broken into parts and performed at a slower speed

12. Which of the following is true of an effective demonstration?a) A circular formation is considered the most effective.b) High status models are preferable.c) It is not necessary to demonstrate a skill from multiple angles.d) If there are both right and left limb dominant learners, the skill should be demonstrated from both sides.

If there are both right and left limb dominant learners, the skill should be demonstrated from both sides

13. When demonstrating the free throw, the learners should be positioned so that they can view the shot from:a) behind.b) the shooting hand side.c) the front.d) multiple viewing angles.

14. After the initial demonstration, practitioners should avoid product options on subsequent demonstrations. What does this mean?a) The outcome of the skill is eliminated.b) Verbal cues are no longer presented.c) Student learners should not be used.d) The skill should be broken down into parts.

The outcome of the skill is eliminated

15. Which of the following is the LEAST effective formation?a) Full circleb) Semi-circlec) Two lines, one lower than the otherd) All of the above are equally effective

16. Discovery learning is:a) a strategy where the learner attempts to solve a movement problem through the exploration of a variety of possible task solutions.b) a part-practice technique that reduces the level of difficulty of a task on some aspect for the learner.c) a part-practice technique that separates the skill into parts according to spatial or temporal elements.d) a part-practice technique where skill components that are normally performed simultaneously are partitioned and practiced independently.

A strategy where the learner attempts to solve a movement problem through the exploration of a variety of possible task solutions

17. Guided discovery:a) should not be used with beginning learners.b) is a technique where the practitioner designs a sequence of questions, each of which elicits a single correct response discovered by the learner.c) creates a situation where the learner becomes actively involved in problem solving through exploration.d) B and C onlye) all of the above.

Is a technique where the practitioner designs a sequence of questions, each of which elicits a single correct response discovered by the learner.

18. Which of the following is important to do before skill instruction begins?a) Perform a demonstration.b) Give the learners feedback.c) Capture the learner’s undivided attention.d) Have the learner engage in imagery.

Capture the learner's undivided attention

19. Effective instructions:a) can only be given by an expert.b) send clear messages to the learner.c) are highly detailed.d) always incorporate technical terminology.

Send clear messages to the learner

20. When instructions are used to introduce a learner to a new skill, the practitioner should:a) explain all of the different criterion conditions in which the skill may be used.b) supply only the key elements of the skill.c) give as much detail regarding the skill as much as possible.d) avoid comparing the skill to previously learned skills

Supply only the key elements of the skill.

21. Which of the following is true?a) Beginning learners are able to discriminate between relevant and non-relevant stimuli.b) Trial and error is the best strategy for efficient skill learning.c) Practitioners should focus learner’s attention to the critical elements of the motor skill being learned.d) When introduced to a new skill, learners can identify relevant stimuli without the help of the practitioner, but cannot identify irrelevant stimuli without direction.

Practitioners should focus learner's attention to the critical elements of the motor skill being learned.

22. An external focus:a) directs a learner’s attention to the effects of his or her actions on the environment.b) directs a learner’s attention to factors beyond the learner’s control.c) directs a learner’s attention on his or her own body movements.d) directs a learner’s attention to external factors in the environment such as the position of defenders.

Directs a learner's attention to the effects of his or her actions on the environment.

23. Which of the following statements is true?a) Conscious awareness is necessary for learning about the environmental regulatory features of a motor skill.b) Practitioners should instruct learners to focus on specific environmental cues.c) Providing a variety of performance situations that contain critical environmental regulatory cues is confusing and should be awarded.d) The learner’s attention should be directed at information rich areas to learn critical environmental regulatory cues.

The learner's attention should be directed at information rich areas to learn critical environmental regulatory cues.

24. Which of the following techniques would be optimal to check for understanding?a) Asking learners specific questions regarding the instructions just givenb) Asking learners if they have any questions regarding the instructions just givenc) Letting the learners try an activity and then clarifying the instructions if necessaryd) It is not necessary to check for understanding.

Asking learners specific questions regarding the instructions just given

25. The name of the theory that suggests the development of a cognitive representation of a skill from seeing a demonstration or model is:a) the dynamic interpretation of modeling.b) the social cognitive theory of observational learning.c) the representational modeling theory.d) the blueprint theory.

The social cognitive theory of observational learning

26. The key to the use of a learning model is:a) that the individual is able to correctly perform the skill.b) that the observer views another learner practicing the skill.c) that the observer views the teacher practicing the skill.d) that the observer views another learner practicing the skill and hears the corresponding instructor feedback.

That the observer views another learner practicing the skill and hears the corresponding instructor feedback.

27. Which of the following are true with respect to sound?a) Consequent sounds can provide learners with a frame of reference for error diagnosis.b) Sound can be used to emphasize the internal rhythm of a skill.c) Sound can supplement a demonstration.d) All of the above are true.

All of the above are true

28. Which of the following should be avoided when giving a demonstration?a) Repetition of cue wordsb) Focusing of the learner on key aspects of the movementc) Designing the demonstration so that the outcome is eliminatedd) Using the phrases “like this” and “like that” in conjunction with the demonstration

Using the phrases "like this" and "like that" in conjunction with the demonstration

29. What question(s) a practitioner must answer when designing a demonstration?a) What Should Be Demonstrated?; and Who Should Demonstrate? b) How Should the Demonstration be Organized?c) When Should Be Demonstrated?; and How Often Should Be Demonstrated?d) All of the abovee) All of the above and How Long Should Be Demonstrated?

30. Structure a cue phrase / critical element can be based on four parts as behavior objectives: action, content, qualification, and special conditions. What does the “content” refer to?a) description of the desirable motionb) a short descriptions of how success can be gauged. c) a short description of what is doing the action. d) added to the teaching cues if more information is needed to evaluate the performance.

A short description of what is doing the action.

31. How many issue(s) can be used to justify the identification of critical elements or desirable technique: a) safety or risk of injury to the performer (their exact sequence or coordination), b) effectiveness (biomechanical principles) in accomplishing the goal of the movementc) efficiency of goal attaintment (using economical energy to correctly perform a movement)d) a, b, and ce) rhythm and speed of the skill

32. Evidence from research investigating observational learning has shown that one reason why observing a skilled person demonstrate a skill benefits the learning of that skill is that the observer perceives and usesa) invariant relationships in the observed movement pattern.b) kinematic details of the movement of a critical limb segment.c) kinetic information about the movement pattern.d) All of these

Invariant relationships in the observed movement pattern.

33. Which of the following is the most likely to show learning benefits from observing a skilled performer?a) All motor skills. b) All motor skills when verbal instructions are also given.c) Motor skills that require the learning of a new coordination pattern.d) Motor skills that require the learning of new parameter characteristics.

Motor skills that require the learning of new coordination pattern.

34. The view that modeling benefits skill learning because the model helps the learner develop an accessible representation in memory that will serve as a guide for performing the skill is known as thea) cognitive mediation theory. b) symbolic coding theory.c) dynamic view.d) behavioral view.

Cognitive mediation theory

Limited attention capacity

36. Research has shown that to achieve the best learning of skills that require the performer to emphasize speed and accuracy the initial verbal instructions should emphasize a) speed rather than accuracy.b) accuracy rather than speed.c) both speed and accuracy.d) neither speed nor accuracy.

Accuracy rather than speed.

37. Verbal cues seem to work because they a) direct attention to relevant information in the environment.b) prompt a specific sequence of movements to be performed.c) Both A and B.d) Neither A nor B.

38. Verbal cues said out loud while a person is learning or performing a skill can helpa) beginners learn a new skill. b) skilled performers perform well-learned skills.c) both beginners and skilled performers.d) neither beginners nor skilled performers.

Both beginners and skilled performers.

Augmented feedback (skill0related given to the other beginner.

40. From a perception point of view, the benefit of observing a skilled demonstration is that the visual system picks up information about the ________ characteristics of the skill.a) coordinationb) controlc) speedd) error detection

1. Which of the following is not an advantage about breaking a skill down into parts?a) Simplifies the skillb) Allows a learner to experience early success leading to increased motivationc) Permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already masteredd) Focuses on retaining the underlying dynamics of the skill when components are highly interdependent

Focuses on retaining the underlying dynamics of the skill when components are highly interdependent

High task complexity / low task organization

3. Task complexity is directly correlated with:a) the degree to which the sub-components of a skill are interdependent.b) the number of sub-components that make up the skill.c) the frustration level of the learner.d) the age of the learner.

the number of sub-components that make up the skill

4. Part practice can be advantageous as it:a) retains the underlying dynamics of a skill.b) increases a task’s complexity.c) will lead to greater positive transfer than whole practice.d) permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already mastered.

Permits practice on problematic components without wasting time on those already mastered.

5. The degree to which the sub-components of a skill are interdependent is called:a) task complexity.b) task structure.c) task analysis.d) task organization.

6. Which of the following skills would be considered high in task complexity?a) Puttingb) Hoppingc) High Jumpingd) Picking up a cup

7. Which of the following is considered low in task organization?a) Throwing a discusb) Pole vaultingc) A jump serve in volleyballd) An aerobics sequence

Low task complexity/ high task organization

9. The progressive part method is an example of:a) segmentation.b) fractionization.c) simplification.d) attention cueing.

10. When making a decision as to whether to use whole or part practice, a practitioner should assess the task’s complexity, its organization, and:a) the amount of time available to learn the skill.b) practice frequency.c) practice duration.d) the capability of the learner.

the capability of the learner

11. The part-practice technique that separates skills into parts according to spatial or temporal elements is called:a) simplification.b) attention cueing.c) segmentation.d) fractionization.

12. Learning to serve a volleyball from half court before moving to the baseline is an example of :a) segmentation.b) fractionization.c) simplification.d) attention cueing.

relatively independent parts

14. The part-practice technique where skill components that are normally performed simultaneously are partitioned and practiced independently is called:a) simplifiation.b) attention cueing.c) segmentation.d) fractionization.

15. The part-practice technique that reduces the level of difficulty of the task or some aspect of the task for the learner is called:a) simplification.b) attention cueing.c) segmentation.d) fractionization.

16. ______________ occurs when practice on one limb enhances the rate of skill acquisition with the opposite limb on the same task.a) Attention cueingb) Fractionizationc) Segmentationd) Bilateral transfer

17. The part-practice technique where the learner directs his or her attention to a specific aspect of a skill during its performance as a whole is called:a) simplification.b) attention cueing.c) segmentation.d) fractionization.

18. According to the speed accuracy tradeoff, for tasks requiring spatial accuracy:a) accuracy will be compromised if a task is attempted with too much velocity.b) accuracy will be enhanced if a skill is performed at a high velocity.c) accuracy is not affected by velocity.d) an increased velocity leads to an increase in accuracy.

accuracy will be compromised if a task is attempted with to much velocity

19. The technique where two parts are practiced separately then combined once a criterion level has been achieved is called (the):a) progressive part method.b) repetitive part method.c) backward chaining.d) whole practice.

20. Hitting a ball off of a tee is an example of:a) simplification.b) attention cueing.c) segmentation.d) fractionization.

21. Which of the following is governed by the speed-accuracy tradeoff?a) Temporal accuracy b) Spatial accuracyc) Cognitive accuracyd) Both A and B

22. Fitts’ Law specifies that performance will show a speed-accuracy trade-off in a rapid manual aiming task according to the relationship between which two characteristics of the task?a) Distance to move and target sizeb) Distance to move and movement speedc) Target size and movement speedd) Target size and type of target

Distance to move and target size

23. If a skill should not be physically separated for part practice, an alternative means of achieving the benefits of part practice is to a) talk about the problems you have with each part of the skill.b) observe a demonstration of the part of the skill you are having difficulty with.c) direct your attention specifically to a part of the skill you are having difficulty with.d) have your instructor tell you what needs to be done to improve a specific part of the skill.

direct your attention specifically to a part of the skill you are having difficulty with.

24. A greater degree of bilateral transfer is believed to occur:a) from the preferred to the non-preferred limb.b) from the non-preferred limb to the preferred limb.c) equally well regardless of which limb was practiced first.d) when the limbs are practiced alternatively.

From the preferred to the non-preferred limb.

25. Bilateral transfer occurs between:a) limbs.b) people.c) behaviors.d) theories.

26. Which of the following statements reflects the appropriate view of the spatial and temporal control underlying the performance of an asymmetric bimanual action?a) The two arms prefer to move independently of each other.b) The two arms prefer to move together as one unit.c) The preferred arm always dominates the other arm.d) The two arms cannot perform an asymmetric bimanual action.

The two arms prefer to move together as one unit

27. The playing of a guitar is a good example of performing a) an asymmetric bimanual skill.b) a symmetric bimanual skill.c) a prehension skill.d) a manual aiming skill.

an asymmetric bimanual skill

28. The cognitive explanation for bilateral transfer proposes that bilateral transfer occurs because the requireda) task components are similar.b) cognitive components are similar. c) cognitive effort is similar.d) attention demands are similar.

cognitive components are similar

30. Performance goals are concerned with:a) the final result of a competition relative to one’s opponent. b) self-improvement.c) directing a performer’s focus on achieving some technical element during skill execution.d) winning.

31. Goals should be:a) challenging.b) specific.c) measurabled) all of the above

32. Goals that are concerned with the final result of a competition relative to one’s opponent are called:a) process goals.b) performance goals.c) long term goals.d) outcome goals.

33. A patient whose goal is to increase the number of steps she can take unassisted has set a:a) process goal.b) performance goal.c) long term goal.d) outcome goal.

34. Goals that direct a performer’s focus to achieving some technical element during skill execution are called:a) process goals.b) performance goals.c) long term goals.d) outcome goals.

35. Goals that focus on self-improvement are called:a) process goals.b) performance goals.c) long term goals.d) outcome goals.

36. The Neuromuscular Theory of imagery suggests that the act of visualizing oneself executing a movement:a) allows the learner to develop an understanding of a movement's requirements.b) allows activation of the same neural pathways as the movement itself.c) allows the learner to test movement problems.d) allows the learner to develop performance strategies.

allows activation of the same neural pathways as the movement itself.

37. The technique that involves the visualization or cognitive rehearsal of a movement in the absence of any physical execution is called:a) reflection.b) observation.c) imagery.d) visual imagery.

38. In an experiment, when an all-mental practice condition is compared to an all-physical practice condition and a no practice condition, the typical results show that participants in the all-mental practice condition learn the skill a) as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition.b) not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition.c) not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition and about the same as those in the no practice condition.d) better than those in either the all-physical practice or the no practice conditions.

not as well as those in the all-physical practice condition but better than those in the no practice condition

39. If a combination mental-physical practice condition is added to the experimental conditions described in question number 38, participants in this condition would learn the skilla) as well as or better than those in the all-physical practice condition.b) about as well as those in the all-mental practice condition.c) about as well as those in the no practice condition. d) None of these; it depends on the combination of the amount of mental and physical practice.

as well or better than those in the all-physical practice condition.

40. When skilled athletes were surveyed about their use of mental imagery, which general type(s) of imagery did they tend to use most often? a) Motivationb) Cognitivec) Both motivation and cognitived) The type of imagery used was sport-specific.

41. Imagery ability has been shown to a) have no relationship to mental practice effectiveness.b) relate to mental practice effectiveness for some but not all skills.c) have a minimal relationship to mental practice effectiveness.d) have a positive correlation with mental practice effectiveness.

have a positive correlation with mental practice effectiveness.

42. Mistakes are an integral part of the learning process.a) Trueb) False

43. Practice makes perfect.a) Trueb) False

44. Research has shown that mental practice is effective as a performance preparation strategy but not as an aid to learning a new motor skill. a) True b) False

45. Only the neuromuscular hypothesis is generally accepted as an explanation of the effectiveness of mental practice for motor skill learning and performance.a) True b) False

1. Research evidence has demonstrated that when a practice condition is experienced in which the likelihood of making errors early in practice is high, transfer performance is a) worse than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum.b) better than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum. c) not different from that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum.d) like starting to practice the skill all over again.

Better than that of a practice condition that kept errors to a minimum

2. Regulatory conditions in a motor skill performance situation includea) speed of a tennis ball during a rally.b) score of a baseball game.c) number of spectators at a game.d) All of these.

Speed of a tennis ball during a rally

4. The practice schedule where multiple variations of a given task are practiced is called:a) constant practice.b) blocked practice.c) variable practice.d) random practice.

5. When implementing variable practice, which of the following should be manipulated for closed skills that involves inter-trial variability?a) Regulating conditionsb) Non-regulatory conditionsc) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditionsd) Variable practice should not be used for closed skills with inter-trial variability

both regulatory and non-regulatory conditions

6. Which of the following should be manipulated for open skills when designing variable practice experiences?a) Regulatory conditionsb) Non-regulatory conditionsc) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditionsd) Variable practice should not be used with open skills.

both regulatory and non-regulatory condidtions

7. An example of a non-regulatory condition that could be incorporated into the variable practice schedule for a quarterback would be:a) the presence of defenders.b) the crowd noise level.c) the distance of throw to hit a receiver.d) the area on the field to which the ball must be thrown.

8. For open skills, regulatory conditions a) do not change from one performance to another.b) can change from one performance to another but do not change during the movement execution.c) cannot change from one performance to another and do not change during the movement execution.d) can change from one performance to another and during the movement execution.

can change from one performance to another and during the movement execution

9. Variable practice should be implemented:a) when the skill is first introduced.b) once the learner has acquired the basic movement pattern.c) only when the learner has reached the autonomous stage.d) only when the learner is having difficulty developing an understanding of the basic movement pattern.

once the learner has acquired the basic movement pattern

10. Which of the following is NOT true of variable practice?a) It enhances the development of a learner’s schema.b) It facilitates transfer.c) It leads to better performance during practice.d) It enhances a learner’s ability to accurately select appropriate parameter values to accomplish a movement goal.

It leads to better performance during practice

11. When implementing variable practice, which of the following should be manipulated for skills whose objective is the consistent and accurate replication of a movement pattern?a) Regulating conditionsb) Non-regulatory conditionsc) Both regulatory and non-regulatory conditionsd) Variable practice should not be used for closed skills with inter-trial variability.

Non-regulatory conditions

12. The interference that results from switching from one skill to another or changing the context in which a task is practiced from trial to trial is called:a) task interference.b) skill obstruction.c) invasive practice.d) contextual interference.

13. Contextual interference can be considered as a continuum ranging from low to high for the amount of interference created by the practice schedule. Which of the following types of schedules describes a low-to high continuum of practice schedules? a) Blocked- Serial (Repeated-blocked)-Randomb) Blocked-Random-Serial (Repeated-blocked)c) Random-Blocked-Serial (Repeated-blocked)d) Random- Serial-Blocked (Repeated-blocked)

blocked-serial (repeated-blocked) - random

14. In experiments comparing different levels of contextual interference during motor skill practice, the results typically show that thea) low contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the high contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.b) high contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the low contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.c) low and high contextual interference schedules are similar during practice, but the low schedule shows better transfer performance.d) low and high contextual interference schedules are similar during practice, but the high schedule shows better transfer performance.

Low contextual interference schedule is better during practice, but the high contextual interference schedule shows better transfer performance.

15. Research has shown that blocked practice consistently leads to poor performancea) for open skills only.b) for closed skills only.c) on novel skill variation or performance context transfer tests.d) on retention tests.

17. In the experiment by Hall et al., which involved skilled baseball players taking extra batting practice to improve their hitting of three different types of pitches, the results demonstrated that the contextual interference effect isa) not applicable to baseball skills.b) not applicable to skilled performers.c) applicable to skilled performers.d) applicable only in laboratory skill learning situations.

applicable to skilled performers.

18. The hypothesis that explains the contextual interference effect based on the argument that between-trial interference causes us to forget critical information encoded on the previous trial is called thea) interference hypothesis.b) elaboration hypothesis.c) recognition schema forgetting hypothesis.d) action plan reconstruction hypothesis.

action plan reconstruction hypothesis

19. Which of the following describes blocked practice?a) One variation of a skill is practiced repeatedly before practice attempts are given on another skillb) Multiple task variations are performed in a random orderc) Multiple tasks are arranged in blocks according to their similaritiesd) Multiple tasks are arranged in an alternating pattern

one variation of a skill is practiced repeatedly

20. Which of following would be an example of implementing random practice to "practice" 3 different skills?a) Performing 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skillsb) Performing 1 trial of each of the 3 skills over 10 rotationsc) Performing 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twiced) Performing 30 successive trials of 1 skill

Performing 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skills

21. Repeated-blocked practice provides _________ contextual interference.a) nob) lowc) moderate d) high

22. If a golfer lines up 30 balls and putts them from the exact same spot on the green to the exact same hole each time, the golfer is using:a) constant practice.b) blocked practice.c) Repeated-blocked practice.d) A and B

23. Low contextual interference would occur when practice trials are organized following a ___________ schedule.a) blocked b) randomc) repeated blockedd) variable

24. Which of the following would be an example of implementing repeated blocked practice to practice 3 different skills?a) Perform 10 successive trials at each of the 3 skills.b) Perform 1 trial of each of the 3 skills over 10 rotations.c) Perform 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twice.d) Perform 30 successive trials of 1 skill.

Perform 5 trials of each skill repeating the rotation twice

25. __________ contextual interference should be used with beginners until they get the idea of the movement.a) Lowb) Mediumc) Highd) Alternating

26. Which of the following could be manipulated for variable practice?a) Distanceb) Position of targetsc) The inclusion or exclusion of defendersd) All of the above

27. Greater learning gains are achieved through:a) constant practice.b) blocked practice.c) variable practice.d) The learning gains will be equal for all of the above responses.

28. The explanation that suggests that random practice facilitates learning by causing temporary between trials forgetting of task solutions is called the ____________ hypothesis.a) elaboration b) forgetting c) memory d) action plan reconstruction

action plan reconstruction

29. What does the benefit from overtraining refer to as which of the following types of skill?a) Procedural skill. b) Continuous skill.c) Dynamic skill.d) Open skill.

30. When increasing the amount of practice beyond a certain point leads to results that are not proportionally more beneficial for learning, it can be said that practice has reached a point ofa) overpractice.b) diminishing returns. c) limited benefit.d) saturation.

31. If practice schedule A involves two 1-hr practice sessions on each of three days, and schedule B involves one 1-hr practice session on each of six days, the A schedule would be referred to asa) random practice.b) blocked practice.c) massed practice. d) distributed practice.

32. Which of the following is the term used to describe practice where the rest component between sessions or practice attempts is equal to or greater than the practice component?a) Massed practiceb) Alternating practicec) Distributed practiced) Restful practice

33. A massed practice schedule would be the most effective for:a) new & complex skills.b) tasks that have high-energy requirements.c) discrete skills.d) tasks that involve some degree of risk.

34. Prolonged fatigue:a) has no effect on skill performance.b) can cause the learner to practice incorrect motor patterns.c) enhances performance.d) should be incorporated in all practice sessions.

Can cause the learner to practice incorrect motor patterns

35. If substitute or alternative equipment causes a distinct change in movement pattern, what should you do?a) Continue to use it, the learner will figure it out.b) Stop using it.c) Use it only sparingly.d) You should only use the specific equipment designed for that activity.

36. For continuous skills, ______________ poses a greater learning advantage.a) massed practiceb) distributed practicec) dispersed practiced) indolent practice

37. Which of the following best describes a general rule about practice distribution schedules for the length and distribution of practice sessions?a) Distributed practice schedules are better. b) Massed practice schedules are better. c) Both schedules lead to the same amount of learning.d) The rule would depend on the type of skill being learned.

The rule would depend on the type of skill being learned

38. If Mary practiced a skill for 30 seconds and then had a 5-second rest between each trial, and Sally practiced the same skill for 30 seconds and had a 40-second rest between each trial, who is in the massed practice condition, and who is in the distributed condition?a) Mary’s practice is distributed; Sally’s is massed.b) Mary’s practice is massed; Sally’s is distributed. c) Both are in a massed practice condition.d) Both are in a distributed practice condition.

Mary's practice is massed; Sally's is distributed

39. One common problem of much of the research investigating the massed vs. distributed practice issue isa) too many practice trials.b) inappropriate tasks to be learned.c) retention intervals that are not sufficiently long.d) the lack of a retention or transfer test.

Lack of a retention of transfer test.

40. If the type of skill is taken into account, massed practice and distributed practice schedules benefit the learning of which types of skills?a) Continuous skills are learned better with massed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with distributed schedules.b) Continuous skills are learned better with distributed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.c) Both continuous and discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.d) Both continuous and discrete skills are learned better with distributed schedules.

Continuous skills are learned better with distributed schedules; discrete skills are learned better with massed schedules.

41. When massed practice has hindered the learning of continuous skills, the most probable cause isa) boredom.b) anxiety.c) fatigue.d) confusion.

42. A well-designed drill:a) maximizes time on task.b) involves the participation of all learners.c) directly targets the learning goal.d) All of the abovee) A & B only

43. Which of the following must be considered when designing practice experiences?a) The learnerb) The taskc) The environmentd) All of the abovee) A & C only

44. Stations are a teaching method that can easily be designed to incorporate both variable and random practice.a) Trueb) False

45. Long term retention of a motor skill is best achieved by practicing a skill repeatedly before moving to a different version of the task or a different task altogether.a) Trueb) False

1. Before conducting an observation, the practitioner should identify both the purpose of the skill and:a) the errors in performance.b) the abilities of the learner.c) the type of performance error they expect to see. d) the key elements of the skill.

The key elements of the skill

2. The optimal viewing perspective from which to observe a skill is:a) up close.b) from behind.c) from the right side. d) from the left side.e) dependant on the skill.

3. An error that emerges because a bat is too heavy for the learner is considered as a (n):a) error due to constraints.b) execution error.c) comprehension error.d) sensory error.

4. Specific body movements that are observable and affect a skills performance are called:a) cues.b) key elements.c) patterns.d) behaviors.

5. Which of the following might assist a learner who is making a comprehension error?a) Videotape the learner’s performance.b) Re-explain the skill.c) Use discovery learningd) All of the above.e) A and B only

6. Which of the following can be a source for errors in performance?a) Equipmentb) Fearc) The structure of a drill or taskd) All of the above

7. Which of the following would be considered a sensory error?a) Inability to distinguish between relevant and irrelevant cuesb) Failure to look at information rich areas in the environmentc) Focusing one’s attention on the wrong cues d) Failure to see important cues because they occurred faster than the eye can physiologically function

failure to see important cues because they occurred faster than the eye can physiologically function

8. When an error occurs because learners do not understand what you want them to do, the error falls into which of the following categories?a) Errors due to constraintsb) Comprehension errorsc) Errors in selectiond) Execution errorse) Sensory Errors

9. Which of the following would NOT be considered an advantage of using a video camera in order to eliminate major common error(s)??a) It permits repetitive viewing.b) It can be played in slow motion.c) It can provide the learner with the opportunity to see what he or she is doing incorrectly.d) It can alter the performance of those not used to being videotaped.

It can alter the performance of those not used to being videotaped.

10. Good decision-making begins with good:a) abilities.b) assessment.c) selection.d) execution.

11. The level of arousal of a performer can lead to an error in:a) comprehension.b) proprioception.c) perception.d) recall.

12. If a racquetball player selects the wrong shot to hit in a given situation he or she is making a (n):a) execution error.b) decision-making error.c) implementation error.d) error in neuromuscular coordination.

13. Which of the following can likely be attributed to a perceptual or decision-making problem?a) A bat that is too heavyb) Slow bat speedc) Slow swing initiationd) All of the above

14. Perceptual errors occur when the learner:a) doesn’t know what cues to look for in the environment.b) can’t distinguish between task relevant and irrelevant stimuli.c) focuses his or her attention on the wrong cues.d) All of the abovee) A and B only

15. If a racquetball player chooses the appropriate shot for a given situation but mis-hits the ball, he or she is making an error in:a) selection.b) assessment.c) execution.d) decision-making

16. Which of the following can result in an error in neuromuscular coordination?a) The learner has not had enough time to practice the skill.b) The learner lacks the underlying abilities necessary to develop a high degree of skill proficiency.c) Negative transferd) All of the abovee) A and B only

17. Providing reminders is an appropriate correction for:a) errors due to constraints.b) recall errors.c) comprehension errors.d) errors in neuromuscular coordination.

18. Which of the following would NOT be considered an underlying cause of a movement execution error?a) Insufficient practiceb) Performing the movement too quicklyc) Negative transferd) Failure to identify potential predictors

failure to identify potential predictors

19. Teaching a learner how to systematically look for key performance characteristics when assessing a situation will resolve: a) errors due to constraints.b) sensory errors.c) recall errors.d) decision-making errors.

20. When a learner is trying to replace an established movement pattern with a new one they will likely display: a) errors in neuromuscular coordination.b) errors due to constraints.c) sensory errors.d) recall errors.

errors neuromuscular coordination

22. Vertigo can cause a __________ error.a) recall b) telegraphingc) proprioceptiond) vision

23. You are observing an eighth grade basketball practice where the team is practicing free throws. You notice one child is using more of a “shot put” type motion vs. the proper technique. The nets are at regulation height and this particular individual is significantly shorter than the rest of the team. The error you saw (shot putting) is likely:a) a recall error.b) a comprehension error.c) a decision making error.d) an error due to constraints

an error due to constraints

24. If an error in temporal accuracy is being made, the performer should be advised to:a) speed up the movement.b) slow down the movement.c) break the movement down into parts.d) This type of error cannot be corrected.

25. If performers are telegraphing their movements they are:a) concentrating.b) analyzing the performance.c) performing imagery.d) revealing their intent.

26. The state tournament is only a week away and you have noticed an error in Sally’s technique that will require a parameter change. You should:a) fix the error.b) ignore the error.c) make a note of the error so you can fix it during the pre-season next year.d) tell Sally that there is a flaw in her technique but that you are going to wait until next year to work on it.

27. Corrections involving fundamental changes to the motor program:a) take a long time to fix.b) can be fixed almost instantaneously.c) will never be completely fixed.d) should be ignored.

28. When augmented information is provided to the learner during the movement, it is called:a) intrinsic feedback.b) outcome feedback.c) concurrent feedback. d) terminal feedback.

29. The one thing that should be considered prior to correcting a flaw observed in a learner’s performance is:a) the gender of the learner.b) the age of the learner.c) the amount of time needed for the learner to make the correction.d) the number of learners being observed.

The amount of time needed for the learner to make the correction.

30. A flaw observed in an individual’s performance is not necessarily indicative of the underlying cause of the error.a) Trueb) False

1. Intrinsic feedback is:a) response produced information that is available from one's sensory system.b) information received from an external source.c) information that is only received following the completion of a response.d) the same as videotape feedback.

response produced information that is available from one's sensory system

2. Which of the following is NOT an example of augmented feedback?a) Video tape replay of an individual’s performanceb) Information provided to the learner regarding their performance by the coachc) The feeling a gymnast gets as she starts to lose her balance when doing a balance beam routine d) The score received for a dive that is posted by an official

The feeling a gymnast gets as she starts to lose her balance when doing a balance beam routine

3. Knowledge of performance or KP is:a) information about the outcome of a response.b) Information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.c) physiological information concurrently fed back to the learner through some form of instrumentation.d) information about an opponent's outcome in relation to one's outcome.

information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.

4. Knowledge of results or KR is:a) information about the outcome of a response.b) information about the specific characteristics that led to the outcome.c) physiological information concurrently fed back to the learner through some form of instrumentation.d) information about an opponent's outcome in relation to one's outcome.

information about the outcome of a response

5. Augmented feedback that is presented to the learner following the completion of a response is called:a) terminal feedback.b) concurrent feedback.c) punishment.d) subsequent feedback.

6. Which of the following is NOT a function of augmented FB?a) To provide information regarding the corrections of a responseb) To motivatec) To reinforced) To accommodate learning styles

To accommodate learning styles

7. When augmented information is provided to the learner during the movement, it is called:a) concurrent feedback.b) terminal feedback.c) intrinsic feedback.d) outcome feedback.e) biofeedback feedback

8. Which of the following is an example of the use of concurrent augmented feedback?a) When driving on a narrow, curvy street in a car simulator, seeing different visible signals to indicate when the car is inside or outside the street.b) When using EMG biofeedback, hearing a beeping sound when the target muscle is activated.c) When performing a knee-extension device, seeing a knee-angle displacement curve on a computer monitor.d) All of these.

9. Which of the following is an example of knowledge of results?a) "You need to follow through more."b) "Did you feel how you were off balance when you hit the ball?"c) "Your ball landed short of the pin."d) "Be sure you contact the ball in front of your shoulder."

Your ball landed short of the pin.

10. The experiment in which verbal encouragement given to people learning a skill led to a certain amount of performance improvement but verbal KP led to a greater amount of improvement, the influence of KP in this situationa) was essential for skill learning. b) was not essential for skill learning, but enhanced it. c) hindered skill learning.d) None of these

was not essential for skill learning, but enhanced it

11. The statement “Great effort; way to go after that ball!” is an example of:a) punishment.b) verbal instructions.c) positive reinforcement.d) negative reinforcement.

12. When augmented feedback serves to encourage a person to continue striving to achieve a performance goal, augmented feedback functions asa) a guide to correct errors.b) motivation. c) reinforcement.d) None of these

13. When the performer of a skill is told “your score was 16 on that attempt,” the type of augmented feedback is known asa) sensory feedback.b) augmented sensory feedback.c) knowledge of results.d) knowledge of performance.

14. In addition to providing information for the correction of performance errors, augmented feedback serves to:a) criticize.b) reinforce.c) motivate.d) all of the above.e) B and C only

15. Comparisons of augmented feedback that is based on performance errors and correct performance have usually shown thata) error-based feedback is better for motor skill learning. b) correct performance feedback is better for motor skill learning.c) error-based feedback is better early in practice, but correct performance feedback is better later in practice.d) correct performance feedback is better early in practice, but error-based feedback is better later in practice.

error-based feedback is better for motor skill learning.

16. In the videotape feedback learning stage known as the shock stag:a) learners begin to critically observe their practice attempts and identify specific performance errors.b) learners are preoccupied with their appearance and have to get used to seeing themselves on tape.c) learners begin to understand why an error occurred and begin to generate error correction strategies.d) learners can consistently identify and correct errors.

Learners are preoccupied with their appearance and have to get used to seeing themselves on tape

17. If videotape is used as augmented feedback for beginners, it should be used a) in any situation.b) only in the presence of advanced performers.c) only with the instructor present. d) None of these, videotape replays should not be used to help beginners.

Only with the instructor present

18. Which of the following can be used as a source of performance feedback?a) Equipmentb) Videotapec) Graphsd) Consequent soundse) All of the above can be used as a source of performance feedback.

All of the above can be used as a source of performance feedback

19. In the sandwich approach to error correction, the learner is first reinforced. He/she is then provided information to facilitate error correction before finally being________.a) punishedb) ridiculedc) consoled d) encouraged

20. The provision of attention directing cues with videotape feedback (VTFB): a) has no influence on skill acquisition.b) facilitates skill acquisition.c) hinders skill acquisition.d) only benefits performance.

Facilitates skill acquisition

21. The choice to use either descriptive or prescriptive feedback is dependent on:a) the type of error.b) the skill level of the learner.c) the nature of the skill.d) the learner's level of motivation.

The skill level of the learner

22. During the _________ stage of video feedback learning, learners begin to critically observe their practice attempts and identify specific performance errors. During this stage they cannot yet identify why an error occurred.a) shockb) error detectionc) error correctiond) independence

23. Descriptive feedback:a) describes the nature of the performance error.b) offers a suggestion as to how to correct an error.c) describes how the performance felt.d) is also known as subjective feedback.

describes the nature of the performance error

24. If the goal of the feedback is to facilitate skill acquisition, the practitioner should provide __________ based information.a) errorb) achievementc) reinforcementd) punishment

25. Which of the following statements about descriptive and prescriptive verbal KP is correct?a) Descriptive verbal KP is preferable to prescriptive verbal KP early in practice.b) Prescriptive verbal KP is preferable to descriptive verbal KP early in practice.c) Either descriptive or prescriptive verbal KP is appropriate to use early in practice.d) Neither descriptive nor prescriptive verbal KP should be used early in practice.

Prescriptive verbal KP is preferable to descriptive verbal KP early in practice

26. If the provision of feedback is based on a predetermined range of “correctness”, a practitioner is using:a) faded feedbackb) bandwidth feedback.c) summary feedback.d) average feedback.

27. If the goal of the feedback is to reinforce, feedback should be:a) critical.b) error based.c) on the correct aspects of the skill.d) on the fundamental error.

on the correct aspects of the skill

28. When you give a person augmented feedback based on a “performance bandwidth,” you give feedback only when the person’s performance isa) outside a specific range of correctness. b) within a specific range or correctness.c) Either A or B.d) Neither A or B.

outside a specific range of correctness

29. Which of the following is true of the development of an overdependence on external feedback?a) It occurs when a learner receives augmented feedback at a high frequency.b) Overdependence is positive as a learner becomes more attentive.c) It forces the learner to focus on his or her own intrinsic feedback.d) It increases the learner's ability to self diagnose errors.

It occurs when a learner receives augmented feedback at a high frequency

30. A form of augmented feedback that measures physiological information that is concurrently available to the learner through some form of instrumentation is called:a) instrumental feedback.b) intrinsic feedback.c) monitoring.d) biofeedback.

31. The interval of time from the end of one performance attempt to the beginning of the next is known as:a) the feedback-delay interval.b) the inter-trial interval.c) the post-feedback interval.d) the total response interval.

32. The interval of time from the provision of augmented feedback to the initiation of the next performance attempt is called the:a) feedback-delay interval.b) inter-trial interval.c) post-feedback interval.d) total response interval.

33. In order to assist learners in the development of their ability to detect and correct their performance, a practitioner:a) should give the learner an opportunity to process intrinsic feedback.b) should ask learners questions during practice to provoke reflective thinking regarding practice attempts.c) should provide feedback immediately following the performance attempt.d) A and B only

34. One activity shown to actually benefit skill learning when it occurs in the KR-delay interval isa) practicing another skill that has KR presented on each trial.b) performing any type of motor skill.c) performing any type of verbal skill.d) estimating your own error for the just completed response.

estimating you own error for the just completed response

35. By asking learners what they are thinking about with respect to the upcoming attempt during the post-feedback interval, a practitioner can:a) check for understanding.b) encourage active processing of the feedback provided.c) encourage active processing for movement modification.d) All of the above

36. The “guidance hypothesis,” which relates to the frequency of KR, takes issue with which traditional viewpoint about the best frequency for KR? a) The more frequently KR is given, the better the learning will be.b) The less frequently KR is given, the better the learning will be.c) A combination of 100% and relative frequency leads to the best learning.d) More frequent KR early in practice and less frequent KR later in practice leads to the best learning

The more frequently Kr is given, the better the learning will be

37. The interval during which the learner synthesizes the information received both intrinsically and extrinsically is called the:a) feedback-delay interval.b) inter-trial interval.c) post-feedback interval.d) total response interval.

38. If a person throws a series of 50 darts at a target that cannot be seen and is shown the results of each set of 10 throws at the end of every 10 throws, the augmented feedback technique is called thea) performance-bandwidth technique.b) averaged augmented feedback technique. c) summary augmented feedback technique. d) self-selected technique.

summary augmented feedback technique

39. Augmented feedback can be redundant.a) Trueb) False

40. The more frequently augmented feedback is given, the greater the learning gains.a) Trueb) False

41. Augmented feedback should be delivered to learners immediately following their performance attempt.a) Trueb) False

42. Augmented feedback that tells a beginner those aspects of the performance that were correct can serve a motivational role to encourage the person.a) Trueb) False

43. It is preferable to give prescriptive verbal KP to beginners rather than descriptive verbal KP.a) Trueb) False

44. Giving augmented feedback to a beginner only when he or she requests it is better than giving the augmented feedback on every trial.a) Trueb) False